لطفا منتظر باشید ...
In the Name of Allah, The Most Compassionate The Most Merciful
And they say: "None shall enter Paradise
unless he be a Jew or a Christian." Those are their (vain) desires. Say:
"Produce your proof if ye are truthful." Nay -whoever submits His whole
self to Allah and is a doer of good - He will get his reward with his
Sustainer; on such shall be no fear nor shall they grieve.
FREQUENTLY ASKED QUESTIONS
ABOUT THE BIBLE
Question No.1
Jesus said: "I and the Father are one" (Jn.
10:30), therefore, is not Jesus the same, or, "co-equal" in status with
his Father?
Answer No.1
In Greek, 'heis' means 'one' numerically (masc.)
'hen' means 'one' in unity or essence (neut.) Here the word used by John
is 'hen' and not 'heis'. The marginal notes in New American Standard Bible
(NASB) reads; one - (Lit. neuter) a unity, or, one essence.
If one wants to argue that the word 'hen' supports
their claim for Jesus being "co-equal" in status with his Father, please
invite that person's attention to the following verse:
Jesus said: "And the glory which Thou hast given
me, I have given to them (disciples); that they may be one, just as we are
one." (Jn 17:22).
Here also the Greek word used is 'hen'. If any one
was to consider / regard / believe the Father and Jesus Christ to be "one"
meaning "co-equal" in status on the basis of John 10:30, then that person
should also be prepared to consider / regard / believe "them" - the
disciples of Jesus, to be "co-equal" in status with the Father and Jesus
("just as we are one") in John 17:22. I don't think that individual would
be prepared to make the disciples (students) "co-equal" in status with the
Father or Jesus.
The unity was of the authorized divine message that
originated from the Father, given to Jesus as His messenger and finally
passed on by Jesus to his disciples. Jesus admitted having accomplished
the work which the Father had given him to do. (Jn. 17:4)
Hot Tip: (precise and
pertinent)
Jesus said: "I go to the Father; for the Father is
greater than I." (Jn. 14:28). This verse unequivocally refutes the claim
of Jesus being "co-equal" in status with his Father.
Note:
If one wants to argue that the word "greater" does
not necessarily mean being greater or better in authority or status.
Please invite that persons attention to John 13:16.
Question No. 2
Jesus said: "I am the way, ...no one comes to
the Father, but through me." (Jn. 14:6), therefore, is not the Salvation
through Jesus, ALONE?
Answer No. 2
Before Jesus spoke these words, he said; "In my
Father's house are many mansions (dwelling places); if it were not so, I
would have told you; for I go to prepare a mansion (a dwelling place) for
you." (John 14:2). The above explicit statement confirms that Jesus was
going to prepare "a" mansion and not "all" the mansions in "my Father's
house". Obviously, the prophets that came before him and the one to come
after, were to prepare the other mansions for their respective followers.
The prophet that came after Jesus had evidently shown the current "way" to
a modern mansion in the kingdom of heaven. Besides; the verse clearly
states; Jesus was the "WAY" to a mansion. It is a folly to believe that
Jesus (or any prophet) was the "DESTINATION". Jesus said; "I am the door"
to find the pasture. (Jn. 10:9). A sheep that walks through the "door"
will find the pasture. A sheep that circles around the "door" will never
find the pasture. One who crosses over the "way" will reach the mansion.
Anyone that stops on the "way" and believes the "way" to be the end of
his/her journey, will be out in the open without any shelter.
Hot Tip: (precise and
pertinent)
Jesus said; "Not every one that says to me; Lord,
Lord,' will enter the kingdom of heaven; but he who does the will of my
Father, who is in heaven." (Mt. 7:21).
Question No. 3
Jesus said: "He who has seen me has seen the
Father" (Jn. 14:9), does this not prove that Jesus Christ and his Father
were one and the same?
Answer No. 3
One day to prove a point and settle an argument,
Jesus picked up a child and said to his disciples; "Whoever receives this
child in my name receives me; and whoever receives me receives Him who
sent me;" (Luke 9:48). Does this make the child Messiah?
Jesus said;
"And this is eternal life, that they may know Thee
the only true God, and Jesus Christ whom Thou hast sent." (John
17:3).
The call of sincerity demands that if believing in
the Truth is the honest intention then one could only pass an ethical
judgment after reflecting upon other relevant texts.
Hot Tip: (precise and
pertinent)
Jesus said; "Truly, truly, I say to you, a slave is
not greater than his master; neither one who is sent greater than the one
who sent him." (John 13:16).
During his ministry, Jesus repeatedly said he was
sent by his Father.
Question No. 4
The Bible reveals; "For God so loved the world,
that He gave His only begotten son, that whoever believes in him should
not perish, but have eternal life." (John 3:16); should you not believe in
Jesus to have eternal life?
Answer No. 4
Of course, we Muslims believe in Jesus for what he
was. But, we do not believe in what he was not. We believe Jesus was a
"Messiah"; "Spirit from God"; "Word of God"; "the righteous Prophet" as
well as "the Messenger of God" and "the son of Virgin Mary". But, we do
not believe Jesus was "the begotten son of God." The truth of the matter
is apostle John never ever wrote; Jesus was "the begotten" son of God in
the original Greek text. The most recent edition of the revised King James
Version has omitted the word "begotten" from the above text.
Please obtain a copy of the Gideon Bible' from any
Hotel or a Motel near you. Copies are distributed free since 1899, all
over the world, by The Gideon Society. In the beginning of this famous
Bible, John 3:16 is translated in 26 popular world languages. You may be
amazed to discover that in the English translation, the editors have used
the traditionally accepted term "His only begotten son." Whereas, in
several other languages the editors have used the term "His unique son" or
"His one of a kind son." In 1992, when I discovered this textual
variations, I wrote letters to various universities in North America
requesting them to confirm the original Greek term used by John. Below is
a copy of the response received from The George Washington
University:-
John 3:16 and John 1:18 each have the word
monogenes' in Greek. This word ordinarily means "of a single kind". As a
result, "unique" is a good translation. The reason you sometimes find a
translation that renders the word as "only begotten" has to do with an
ancient heresy within the church. In response to the Arian claim that
Jesus was made but not begotten, Jerome (4th century) translated the Greek
term monogenes' into Latin as unigenitus' ("only begotten"). Paul B.
Duff, 22 April, 1992.
Professor Duff's response was based upon Anchor
Bible', volume 29, page 13-14. The Greek term for "begotten" is gennao'
as found in Mt. 1:2, which John did not use.
Hot Tip: (precise and
pertinent)
Jesus said to Mary; "...go to my brethren, and say
to them, I ascend to my Father and your Father..." (John 20:17). This
verse demonstrates that the usage of term Father' by Jesus was not in a
physical sense but was purely metaphorical for the Creator. As for Jesus
being a "unique son", he, unlike us, was created by the Creator without a
physical Father.
Question No. 5
Jesus said: "Truly, truly. I say to you, unless
one is born again, he cannot see the kingdom of God." (John 3:3); I am a
"born again" Christian, are you a "born again" Muslim?
Answer No. 5
The truth of the matter is apostle John did not use
the phrase "born again". The Greek text reveals, the phrase used by John
is "born from above". The Greek word used by John is anothen' (ano' +
then'). ano' means above' and the suffix then' denotes from'. Hence,
what Jesus said was "unless one is born from above, he cannot see the
kingdom of God." And, that sounds logical. Since none of the living
creature is "born from above", no one can see the kingdom heaven during
his life time. The concept of being "born again" to see the kingdom of
heaven is an innovation to instill the concept of Baptism. In the most
recently revised King James Version the text reads; "being born from
above." The same word anothen' appears in the same Gospel and in the same
chapter in verse 31. Here the editors have translated the word as "from
above" and not "again". To enter the Kingdom of Heaven one has to keep the
Commandments. Please read Mt. 5:19, quoted below. God's distinguished
Command known as the Covenant of Circumcision' (physically, **"in the
flesh of your foreskin"**) was an everlasting Covenant (Compact, Treaty)
between God and man. See Genesis 17:10-14. Can an everlasting Treaty be
abrogated or revoked unilaterally? If not, how do the uncircumcised
Christians expect to enter the Kingdom of Heaven? Did Jesus abrogate the
Command? He was circumcised in the flesh (Luke 2:21).
Hot Tip:
Jesus said; "Whoever then annuls (discards) one of
the least of these commandments, and so teaches others, shall be called
least in the kingdom of heaven; but whoever keeps and teaches them, he
shall be called great in the kingdom of heaven." (Matt. 5:19).
Question No. 6
Jesus said; "Go therefore and make disciples of
all the nations, baptizing them in the name of the Father and the Son and
the Holy Spirit," (Matthew 28:19); does this not prove that the Doctrine
of Trinity' and its present day formula was communicated and promulgated
by Jesus Christ himself?
Answer No. 6
With all due respect, we tend to disagree in view
of the following compelling evidences:- Peake's Commentary on the Bible'
published since 1919, is universally welcomed and considered to be the
standard reference book for the students of the Bible. Commenting on the
above verse it records; "This mission is described in the language of the
church and most commentators doubt that the trinitarian formula was
original at this point in Mt.'s Gospel, since the NT elsewhere does not
know of such a formula and describes baptism as being performed in the
name of the Lord Jesus (e.g. Ac. 2:38, 8:16, etc.)." Tom Harpur, author of
several bestsellers and a former professor of New Testament, writes in his
book For Christ's Sake';
"All but the most conservative of scholars agree
that at least the latter part of this command was inserted later. The
formula occurs nowhere else in the New Testament, and we know from the
only evidence available (the rest of the New Testament) that the earliest
Church did not baptise people using these words - baptism was "into" or
"in" the name of Jesus alone." The above command (authentic or otherwise)
does not indicate that the three names mentioned in the formula are or
were, "co-equal" in their status, as well as, were "co-eternal" in the
time frame, to conform with the acknowledged Doctrine of Trinity'.
If the Father and His Son were both in "existence"
from the Day One, and no one was, a micro second before or after, and, no
one was "greater or lesser" in status, than why is one called the Father
and the other His begotten Son? Did the act of "Begetting" take place? If
YES, where was the "Begotten Son" before the act? If NO, why call him the
"Begotten Son"?
Hot Tip:
"And Peter said to them, Repent, and let each of
you be baptized in the name of Jesus Christ for the forgiveness of your
sins;...'" (Acts 2:38). It is most unlikely that apostle Peter would have
disobeyed the specific command of Jesus Christ for baptizing in the three
names and baptized them in the name of Jesus Christ, alone.
Question No. 7
Apostle John in his first Epistle, chapter 5 and
verse 7 wrote:
"For there are three that bear record in heaven,
the Father, the Word, and the Holy Ghost, and these three are one."; is
this not a fair testimony to acknowledge the Doctrine of
Trinity'?
Answer No. 7
The text quoted above does appear in the older
editions of the Kings James Version, but has been omitted in the most
recent edition of the Revised Version. It does not appear in the New
American Standard Bible, the New English Bible and the Phillips Modern
English Bible because the above quoted text does not appear in the older
Greek manuscripts.
Renowned historian Edward Gibbon calls the addition
a "Pious Fraud" in his famous history book Decline and Fall of Roman
Empire'. Peakes commentary on the subject reads; "The famous interpolation
after "three witnesses" is not printed even in RSV., and rightly. It cites
the heavenly testimony of the Father, the logos, and the Holy Spirit, but
is never used in the early trinitarian controversies. No respectable Greek
MS contains it. Appearing first in a late 4th-cent. Latin text, it entered
the Vulgate and finally the NT of Erasmus.
Hot Tip:
Notwithstanding the above rejections, the verse
that follows the quoted text reads in KJV; "And there are three that bear
witness in earth, the spirit, and the water, and the blood; and these
three agree in one." (1 John 5:8). Are these three witnesses "co-equal"?
Can blood be substituted with water? Can water be regarded as the same in
any respect with the Spirit? Just as the spirit, the blood and the water
are three separate entities, so are the first three witnesses, namely; the
Father, the Son and the Holy Spirit (Ghost).
Question No. 8
Jesus said: "He who believes in the son has
eternal life; but he who does not obey the son shall not see life, but the
wrath of God abides on him." (John 3:36); are you not under the wrath of
God for not being a follower of Christ - a Christian, by
belief?
Answer No. 8
It is an interesting question. In fact, we Muslims
should be asking the question to you the followers of Christ. Do the vast
majority of Christians truthfully believe Christ for what he said he was,
and, truly understand his commands and obey them? We believe, most of the
followers who claim to be Christians do not even understand the truth
behind calling their Leader "Christ" and themselves "Christians". The
above verse has two parts. Belief' and Obedience'. On the subject of
Belief in Christ', Jesus asked his disciples; "But who do you say that I
am? And Peter answered and said, "The Christ of God." (Luke 9:20). Peter
did not say God or a god.
We Muslims truly believe Jesus was "The Christ
(al-Masih) of God". The expression "The Christ of God" literally means;
"The one that was anointed by God himself". Please go back in time and
think. God performed the ceremony of anointing (physically or spiritually)
and for that reason, Jesus became "The Christ of God". Now may I please
ask you a simple question. Who is greater and exalted; the one who
anointed, or, the one who got anointed? Since God anointed Jesus, God is
the One that IS greater and exalted than Jesus, which we Muslims do
believe. Secondly, did Jesus anoint God? If not, how can Jesus Christ be
"co-equal" with the one who made him Holy (Christ)?
Hot Tip:
"...Thy holy Servant Jesus, whom Thou didst
anoint,..." (Acts 4:27 - New American Standard Bible).
This leaves no room for doubt that Jesus, who was
anointed, was a Servant of God'. Besides, there are also other verses in
the Bible that declare Jesus; God's Servant'. Those who claim Jesus
**acted** as a Bond Servant have nothing in the preaching and teachings of
**Jesus** to back them up.
Now let us go to the second part of the quoted
verse; "obeying the Christ". Please read the following verse and ask
yourself a question; have I obeyed?
"Truly, truly, I say to you, he who hears my word,
and believes **Him** who sent me, has eternal life, and does not come into
judgment, but has passed out of death into life". John 5:24
Have I believed and placed my trust basically,
fundamentally and predominately in **Him** or in Jesus?
Hot Tip:
Jesus said; "But I do not seek my glory; there is
One who seeks and judges." John 8:51. Who is this "One"? Have you
basically and essentially glorified that "One" who seeks the glory or
Jesus who does not?
Please remember, as per the above verse, that "One"
will be the Judge on the Day of Judgment and not Jesus. We have believed
the above verse of Jesus. Please read the verse quoted by you and then
think about the "wrath of God" - the One who is going to be the final
Judge.
Question No. 9
In the Book of Genesis 1:26, we read; "And God
said, Let us make man in our image, after our likeness..."; does not the
use of terms "us" and "our" prove that the God which created man was not a
