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Temporary Marriage in Islam
Some
Frequently Asked Questions on Mut'a
After reading the earlier parts of this discussion,
some people corresponded with me asked me some hypothetical questions,
and also some good questions. I present their questions in the following
format:
Q1: Can Someone Contract Mut'a Marriage for
1 hour?
I would say theoretically yes! Much in
the same way that it is possible for some one to marry a woman permanently
and then divorce her in one hour or even less. Logically, since the possibility
of this action does not invalidate the regular marriage, therefore, it
should not be applied in the case of Mut'a either!
Q2: What could be the difference between temporary
marriage and prostitution?
In the previous sections, we explained the
difference between the Mut'a and the long-term marriage (conventional),
and one can see that there is not much differences between them. Also as
I mentioned, one may marry permanently and then divorces his wife after
one day. So what will be the difference?
Moreover, Allah (SWT) did not consider it
prostitution when He revealed the verse, but you do!? All Muslims agree
that the Prophet (PBUH&HF) has legislated Mut'a at some point, and
we as Muslims believe that the Prophet does not speak from his own desires
(La Yantiqu Anil Hawa), so God has permitted it at some point of time.
This very fact differentiates between temporary marriage and adultery,
because God and His Prophet do NOT legitimize adultery. No prophet of God
ever did that.
A simple answer for your question is that
one is legal and the other one is illegal. Let me give you an example:
Suppose a foreigner who may be very experienced
in driving car back home, when going to another country he may need to
apply for a driver license to be able to drive. Now if he drives without
driver license, then what is the difference between him and a person who
drives with license but may not be as experienced as the former? The answer
simply is that the act of the former is illegal while the latter is legal.
The partners may have sex in the three cases
of prostitution, temporary marriage, and permanent marriage. Quran declares
the first one illegal but has made the latter two legal. The other difference,
of course, is that the prostitute has another contract one hour later,
but in both temporary and permanent marriage it is the duty of woman to
wait for a couple of months before entering another contract. As I mentioned
according to ALL of the Shia scholars the "Iddah" for the Mut'a is two
menstrual cycles (or at least 45 days if the woman is of menstruating age
but for some reason does not menstruate). This would provide less than
8 customers a year for a prostitute!!! I think any prostitution agency
would go bankrupt in the first year if it wants to follow the regulations
of Mut'a. And there are many more differences between prostitution and
temporary marriage. May Allah guide those who unknowingly ridicule His
religion and His Prophet.
Q3: Would someone give the hand of his own
daughter in temporary marriage?
I would say yes! Other than because they already
do in a normal marriage, there are good reasons to do that in temporary
marriage. Let's say a father has a daughter who if not married will commit
the sin of fornication, but no one has come forward to ask her hand in
long term marriage - whatever the reasons maybe. Would he give her to some
known pious person who ask in temporary (if it is proved to be the Sunnah
of the Prophet), or would he risk her committing fornication. I am sure
many can think of other circumstances. This does not even address the issue
from the man's perspective - students in foreign countries who do NOT wish
to marry permanently from People of the Book (Ahlul Kitab); the possibility
of turning the foreign wife to a Muslim and Da'wa (call to Islam) to her
family, etc. Do you think "Christian" parents mind? I think not!
Even about Muslim countries I should say:
Although Islam intends to revolve the culture of people, as a result of
tendencies and ignorance in many countries dominated by Muslims, the culture
affected the Islamic teachings, while it is supposed to be the other way
around. One should be able to discriminate between the true teachings of
a divine religion like Islam, and a culture.
About marriage in general, many Muslim families
still have major "traditional" and cultural problems in marrying their
daughters, for all kinds of seemingly stupid reasons. Yet, we do not blame
the religion for such old tribal mentality and the shortcomings of the
followers of Islam.
Such feelings are all as a result of our cruel
cultural traditions and not the true sense of normal feeling and pure instinct.
Is trying to safeguard the boys and girls by putting laws to a relationship
of pleasure a corruption? What is the standard with which we determine
what is corruption and what is reformation? Shouldn't we depend on logical
ruling of the mind and the proven legal Islamic ruling? By taking both
routes it was proven that temporary marriage is authorized and should not
be prevented.
My feeling is that the average Muslims today
are more tolerant of friends and family whom they know or have heard that
they have committed fornication; but less tolerant on accepting that the
idea of Temporary Marriage could solve many social problems and prevent
the majority of adultery in many communities, if it were allowed and promoted
as it was the case before the rule of Umar.
Q4: Does any brother accept that her sister
contracts Mut'a marriage?
This question is fairly similar to the previous
one. Is the standard what brother accepts or rejects? Isn't it first satisfaction
of Almighty God? Or may be the religion of God should submit to the desires
of brother and his jealousy.
Also why would a brother in many cases allow
himself to do things which he prevents his sister from doing? Since when
did our desires become the standards of what is wrong?
Sex is a natural desire that Allah created
within the human nature. What difference does it make if a husband had
pleasure with someone's sister in a temporary or a permanent marriage that
is followed with a fast divorce? By such standard, permanent marriage is
even more wicked because it is having continuous pleasure with the sister.
Why do we suppose that the husband is having
pleasure and the wife is not? Why don't we accept that the right of pleasure
is for both of them, as it is in reality? Why don't we accept that temporary
marriage is not just a physical relationship, but it involves love, emotions,
and sensational feelings even if it is for one month?
I guess what we should really avoid is to
distort Islam based on the darkness of our complications and our unjust
traditional problems.
Q5: Why can't we use the permanent marriage
for the purpose of familiarization between husband and wife?
Permanent marriage can not be used for
familiarization period because:
1. After the contract of permanent marriage
woman can not divorce her husband if she finds that her man is not so great!
Thus in the case that man likes his wife, but his wife does not like him
very much, the divorce will not happen. In other words, the proposal of
using the first few months of permanent marriage as familiarization) is
only good for men!!! In contrary, temporary marriage will end after its
period, and BOTH man and woman can decide again (to convert it to a permanent
one or not).
However, as I mentioned before, under some
circumstances, a Muslim scholar/Judge can divorce her, but this would be
a risky way for woman since the Judge's decision might be different than
her wishes and certainly a period of familiarization does not worth for
all these headaches.
2. In permanent marriage contract, one can
not make the condition that marriage is to be unconsummated. In other words,
sex is an indispensable part of permanent marriage. Then how can a woman
enter into permanent marriage contract for familiarization only? On the
other hand, such necessities do not exist in temporary marriage.
3. Although one can divorce her permanent wife,
this is considered the most hateful permitted act in Islam. The reason
is that the couple have some moral obligations/expectations that they intend
to live together for good. If a man divorces his wife after a couple of
month being with her and after removing her virginity, by saying that he
did not like her too much in this period of familiarization(!!) then it
will be a very bitter experience for that Muslim woman. Remember if a man
does this shameful act, no body can punish him because he has just used
his divorce right. But this action is morally detestable. This in fact
shows that permanent marriage is not a good choice for familiarization
period. Remember that your proposal should be practical, and not imaginary
based on the ideal case where the unfamiliar couple have full trust to
each other before the marriage.
In contrary, Temporary marriage is risk free.
First of all, both man and woman are aware that they will separate after
the specified period and so there will be no surprises. Non of them has
any moral obligation to extend the marriage beyond that period nor do s/he
has any such expectation from the other side. Also, as mentioned, they
can set a condition that marriage is not to be consummated.
Q6: If the husband leaves the town after the
expiration of Mut'a marriage, is it incumbent upon him to later inquire
whether the union was fruitful, and take the custody of his child?
When a man goes to a journey and temporarily
marries, it is incumbent upon him to provide some information to that woman
about his original place and how he can be reached, so that in the case
of pregnancy, the father is informed, and he should provide all the financial
means for his child. This goes for permanent marriage too. If a man divorces
his wife, and immediately leaves the town for another place, it is incumbent
upon him to provide information to his ex-wife as how he can be reached
in the case of pregnancy. In both cases, the child is the legal heir of
his father and his mother.
Q7: Can a man engage in temporary marriage
even if he already has four temporary/ permanent wives?
Yes. The case of the temporarily married girl
in this regard (as well as other issues such as waiting period) is similar
to the case of the bondwomen in Islam. All Muslims do agree that one can
marry an unlimited number of slave-girls. Islam did NOT limit it as it
did with the permanent marriage. However, it is discouraged to go further
than 4 temporary wives.
The reason that Islam strictly limited the
number of permanent wives into four, is that in permanent marriage there
are obligations which do not exist in the other types of marriage, and
these obligations can not be fulfilled if one goes more than four permanent
marriages. For instance, the permanent couples are necessary to be sexually
active, and man should sleep with his wife once each four nights; so how
can he go further than four permanent wives? Also necessity of support
of wife financially is no easy! These obligations do not apply to temporary
marriage, and thus one may go further than that, yet it is not recommended
at all. As I quoted some traditions earlier, it is also discouraged for
a person who has permanent wife available, to engage in temporary marriage
(even one) because it may cause complications for his family.
Q8: Is there any witness required for Mut'a,
or the persons can say the sentences of marriage alone?
The above question has the same answer for
both permanent marriage and temporary marriage. In both cases, religiously
speaking, there is no witness necessary. They themselves can pronounce
the sentences of marriage. However if the girl is virgin, then the boy
needs the permission of her guardian beforehand. But her guardian does
not have to be present as witness when they are pronouncing the marriage
sentences.
Please note that I am only talking about the
religious law. However, if the couple want to register their marriage by
the secular government (which is not religiously necessary), they may have
to do many other things, including the witness (if the secular government
requires).
However those who choose to temporarily marry
in western countries, do not need to register since they know they will
separate from each other soon. This is a temporary relation only, without
many legal responsibilities that a permanent marriage bears (like the necessity
financial support, inheritance and so on). In the view of a western government,
such relationship is nothing worse than boyfriend-girlfriend relationship
which is commonly practiced in the West without any barrier. However, religiously
speaking, the couple who would like to temporarily marry, are required
to satisfy all the religious obligations when entering such contract and
when separating from each other.
Also, for the same reason, in the western
countries, there is no need for witness because no body cares about the
relation of a boy and a girl. However in Muslim countries where people
may accuse the boy and the girl of committing adultery, it might be necessary
to have some witnesses just for the protection of the couple. But this
is not a condition for the validation of marriage.
Also in the case of temporary marriage, the
couple do not have to announce the marriage publicly, specially when the
public opinion is not in favor of Mut'a. Public announcement is not necessary
for the permanent marriage either, though it is encouraged.
Q9: The sentences of Mut'a as I have seen,
are in Arabic, is it necessary to say them in Arabic?
Again, the above question has the same answer
for both permanent marriage and temporary marriage. Scholars do not have
the same idea as to whether the marriage sentences (for both types) are
necessary to be in Arabic or not. The majority of scholars require it to
be in Arabic. Others state that it should be in Arabic if one of them knows
Arabic, otherwise they can pronounce its equivalent in their mother language.
Please note that the marriage sentences are very short. So learning its
Arabic equivalent is not so difficult. Also it is not necessary that both
boy and girl know it. If the boy knows it, it is enough. The girl can authorize
the boy to pronounce the marriage sentence in her behalf, much the same
as a third party usually does. In the case that neither boy nor girl know
the Arabic sentences of marriage, and if there exists a third party who
will do it in Arabic, they can authorize him to pronounce it on their behalves.
Q10: In your opinion (which I do not consider
as a Fatwa) how is it to follow some of the things that one feels logical
in Shia Fiqh while keeping his Sunni faith? Is it Haraam?
My personal answer is that you can. In fact,
I know some Sunni brothers who believe that although they know more about
the specific school that they have been raised with, they do not bound
themselves to that specific school. If some thing is proven to us by Quran
and authentic Hadith, then they follow it. For instance, I personally know
a few of knowledgeable Hanafi friends who believe they can join Duhr and
Asr prayer like what the followers of Ahlul-Bayt do. When I asked them
why, they said we found in Sahih al-Bukhari some traditions which state
that the Messenger of Allah (PBUH&HF) joint Duhr and Asr prayer while
he was not in travel and while he did not have any emergency. So since
there exists at least one Islamic school which allows joining the prayers
(referring to Shia Imamiyyah), and at the same time there exists authentic
traditions in support of it, then we feel free to do that even though we
are raised as Hanafi.
Below I have included the Fatwa of Shaikh Mahmood
Shaltoot, the head of al-Azhar University which clearly removes the barrier
between the Sunni and the Shia, and allows the Sunnis to follow the Fatwa
of any of them. I just give a part of his Fatwa here:
Head Office of al-Azhar University:
IN THE NAME OF ALLAH, THE BENEFICENT,
THE MERCIFUL
Text of the Verdict (Fatwa) Issued by
His Excellency
Shaikh al-Akbar Mahmood
Shaltoot,
Head of the al-Azhar University,
on Permissibility of Following "al-Shia
al-Imamiyyah"
School of Thought
His Excellency was asked:
Some believe that, for a Muslim to have
religiously correct worship and dealing, it is necessary to follow one
of the four known schools of thought, whereas, "al-Shia al-Imamiyyah" school
of thought is not one of them nor "al-Shia al-Zaidiyah." Do your Excellency
agree with this opinion, and prohibit following "al-Shia al-Imamiyyah al-Ithna
Ashariyyah" school of thought, for example?
His Excellency replied:
1) Islam does not require a Muslim to follow
a particular madh'hab (school of thought). Rather, we say: every Muslim
has the right to follow one of the schools of thought which has been correctly
narrated and its verdicts have been compiled in its books. And, everyone
who is following such madhahib [schools of thought] can transfer to another
school, and there shall be no crime on him for doing so.
2) The Ja'fari school of thought, which is
also known as "al-Shia al- Imamiyyah al-Ithna Ashariyyah" (i.e., The Twelver
Imami Shi'ites) is a school of thought that is religiously correct to follow
in worship as are other Sunni schools of thought.
Muslims must know this, and ought to refrain
from unjust prejudice to any particular school of thought, since the religion
of Allah and His Divine Law (Shari'a) was never restricted to a particular
school of thought. Their jurists (Mujtahidoon) are accepted by Almighty
Allah, and it is permissible to the "non-Mujtahid" to follow them and to
accord with their teaching whether in worship (Ibaadat) or transactions
(Mu'aamilaat).
Signed,
Mahmood Shaltoot.
The above Fatwa was announced on July 6, 1959
from the Head of al-Azhar University, and was subsequently published in
many publications in the middle east which include, but are not limited
to:
1. Al-Sha'ab newspaper (Egypt), issue
of July 7, 1959.
2. Al-Kifah newspaper (Lebanon), issue
of July 8, 1959.
Source : A Shi'ite Encyclopedia
Version 2.0
